Using AND bitwise operator between a number, and its negative counterpart - c++

I stumbled upon this simple line of code, and I cannot figure out what it does. I understand what it does in separate parts, but I don't really understand it as a whole.
// We have an integer(32 bit signed) called i
// The following code snippet is inside a for loop declaration
// in place of a simple incrementor like i++
// for(;;HERE){}
i += (i&(-i))
If I understand correctly it uses the AND binary operator between i and negative i and then adds that number to i. I first thought that this would be an optimized way of calculating the absolute value of an integer, however as I come to know, c++ does not store negative integers simply by flipping a bit, but please correct me if I'm wrong.

Assuming two's complement representation, and assuming i is not INT_MIN, the expression i & -i results in the value of the lowest bit set in i.
If we look at the value of this expression for various values of i:
0 00000000: i&(-i) = 0
1 00000001: i&(-i) = 1
2 00000010: i&(-i) = 2
3 00000011: i&(-i) = 1
4 00000100: i&(-i) = 4
5 00000101: i&(-i) = 1
6 00000110: i&(-i) = 2
7 00000111: i&(-i) = 1
8 00001000: i&(-i) = 8
9 00001001: i&(-i) = 1
10 00001010: i&(-i) = 2
11 00001011: i&(-i) = 1
12 00001100: i&(-i) = 4
13 00001101: i&(-i) = 1
14 00001110: i&(-i) = 2
15 00001111: i&(-i) = 1
16 00010000: i&(-i) = 16
We can see this pattern.
Extrapolating that to i += (i&(-i)), assuming i is positive, it adds the value of the lowest set bit to i. For values that are a power of two, this just doubles the number.
For other values, it rounds the number up by the value of that lowest bit. Repeating this in a loop, you eventually end up with a power of 2. As for what such an increment could be used for, that depends on the context of where this expression was used.

Related

Optimal way to compress 60 bit string

Given 15 random hexadecimal numbers (60 bits) where there is always at least 1 duplicate in every 20 bit run (5 hexdecimals).
What is the optimal way to compress the bytes?
Here are some examples:
01230 45647 789AA
D8D9F 8AAAF 21052
20D22 8CC56 AA53A
AECAB 3BB95 E1E6D
9993F C9F29 B3130
Initially I've been trying to use Huffman encoding on just 20 bits because huffman coding can go from 20 bits down to ~10 bits but storing the table takes more than 9 bits.
Here is the breakdown showing 20 bits -> 10 bits for 01230
Character Frequency Assignment Space Savings
0 2 0 2×4 - 2×1 = 6 bits
2 1 10 1×4 - 1×2 = 2 bits
1 1 110 1×4 - 1×3 = 1 bits
3 1 111 1×4 - 1×3 = 1 bits
I then tried to do huffman encoding on all 300 bits (five 60bit runs) and here is the mapping given the above example:
Character Frequency Assignment Space Savings
---------------------------------------------------------
a 10 101 10×4 - 10×3 = 10 bits
9 8 000 8×4 - 8×3 = 8 bits
2 7 1111 7×4 - 7×4 = 0 bits
3 6 1101 6×4 - 6×4 = 0 bits
0 5 1100 5×4 - 5×4 = 0 bits
5 5 1001 5×4 - 5×4 = 0 bits
1 4 0010 4×4 - 4×4 = 0 bits
8 4 0111 4×4 - 4×4 = 0 bits
d 4 0101 4×4 - 4×4 = 0 bits
f 4 0110 4×4 - 4×4 = 0 bits
c 4 1000 4×4 - 4×4 = 0 bits
b 4 0011 4×4 - 4×4 = 0 bits
6 3 11100 3×4 - 3×5 = -3 bits
e 3 11101 3×4 - 3×5 = -3 bits
4 2 01000 2×4 - 2×5 = -2 bits
7 2 01001 2×4 - 2×5 = -2 bits
This yields a savings of 8 bits overall, but 8 bits isn't enough to store the huffman table. It seems because of the randomness of the data that the more bits you try to encode with huffman the less effective it works. Huffman encoding seemed to work best with 20 bits (50% reduction) but storing the table in 9 or less bits isnt possible AFAIK.
In the worst-case for a 60 bit string there are still at least 3 duplicates, the average case there are more than 3 duplicates (my assumption). As a result of at least 3 duplicates the most symbols you can have in a run of 60 bits is just 12.
Because of the duplicates plus the less than 16 symbols, I can't help but feel like there is some type of compression that can be used
If I simply count the number of 20-bit values with at least two hexadecimal digits equal, there are 524,416 of them. A smidge more than 219. So the most you could possibly save is a little less than one bit out of the 20.
Hardly seems worth it.
If I split your question in two parts:
How do I compress (perfect) random data: You can't. Every bit is some new entropy which can't be "guessed" by a compression algorithm.
How to compress "one duplicate in five characters": There are exactly 10 options where the duplicate can be (see table below). This is basically the entropy. Just store which option it is (maybe grouped for the whole line).
These are the options:
AAbcd = 1 AbAcd = 2 AbcAd = 3 AbcdA = 4 (<-- cases where first character is duplicated somewhere)
aBBcd = 5 aBcBd = 6 aBcdB = 7 (<-- cases where second character is duplicated somewhere)
abCCd = 8 abCdC = 9 (<-- cases where third character is duplicated somewhere)
abcDD = 0 (<-- cases where last characters are duplicated)
So for your first example:
01230 45647 789AA
The first one (01230) is option 4, the second 3 and the third option 0.
You can compress this by multiplying each consecutive by 10: (4*10 + 3)*10 + 0 = 430
And uncompress it by using divide and modulo: 430%10=0, (430/10)%10=3, (430/10/10)%10=4. So you could store your number like that:
1AE 0123 4567 789A
^^^ this is 430 in hex and requires only 10 bit
The maximum number for the three options combined is 1000, so 10 bit are enough.
Compared to storing these 3 characters normally you save 2 bit. As someone else already commented - this is probably not worth it. For the whole line it's even less: 2 bit / 60 bit = 3.3% saved.
If you want to get rid of the duplicates first, do this, then look at the links at the bottom of the page. If you don't want to get rid of the duplicates, then still look at the links at the bottom of the page:
Array.prototype.contains = function(v) {
for (var i = 0; i < this.length; i++) {
if (this[i] === v) return true;
}
return false;
};
Array.prototype.unique = function() {
var arr = [];
for (var i = 0; i < this.length; i++) {
if (!arr.contains(this[i])) {
arr.push(this[i]);
}
}
return arr;
}
var duplicates = [1, 3, 4, 2, 1, 2, 3, 8];
var uniques = duplicates.unique(); // result = [1,3,4,2,8]
console.log(uniques);
Then you would have shortened your code that you have to deal with. Then you might want to check out Smaz
Smaz is a simple compression library suitable for compressing strings.
If that doesn't work, then you could take a look at this:
http://ed-von-schleck.github.io/shoco/
Shoco is a C library to compress and decompress short strings. It is very fast and easy to use. The default compression model is optimized for english words, but you can generate your own compression model based on your specific input data.
Let me know if it works!

Can we really avoid extra space when all the values are non-negative?

This question is a follow-up of another one I had asked quite a while ago:
We have been given an array of integers and another number k and we need to find the total number of continuous subarrays whose sum equals to k. For e.g., for the input: [1,1,1] and k=2, the expected output is 2.
In the accepted answer, #talex says:
PS: BTW if all values are non-negative there is better algorithm. it doesn't require extra memory.
While I didn't think much about it then, I am curious about it now. IMHO, we will require extra memory. In the event that all the input values are non-negative, our running (prefix) sum will go on increasing, and as such, sure, we don't need an unordered_map to store the frequency of a particular sum. But, we will still need extra memory (perhaps an unordered_set) to store the running (prefix) sums that we get along the way. This obviously contradicts what #talex said.
Could someone please confirm if we absolutely do need extra memory or if it could be avoided?
Thanks!
Let's start with a slightly simpler problem: all values are positive (no zeros). In this case the sub arrays can overlap, but they cannot contain one another.
I.e.: arr = 2 1 5 1 1 5 1 2, Sum = 8
2 1 5 1 1 5 1 2
|---|
|-----|
|-----|
|---|
But this situation can never occur:
* * * * * * *
|-------|
|---|
With this in mind there is algorithm that doesn't require extra space (well.. O(1) space) and has O(n) time complexity. The ideea is to have left and right indexes indicating the current sequence and the sum of the current sequence.
if the sum is k increment the counter, advance left and right
if the sum is less than k then advance right
else advance left
Now if there are zeros the intervals can contain one another, but only if the zeros are on the margins of the interval.
To adapt to non-negative numbers:
Do as above, except:
skip zeros when advancing left
if sum is k:
count consecutive zeros to the right of right, lets say zeroes_right_count
count consecutive zeros to the left of left. lets say zeroes_left_count
instead of incrementing the count as before, increase the counter by: (zeroes_left_count + 1) * (zeroes_right_count + 1)
Example:
... 7 0 0 5 1 2 0 0 0 9 ...
^ ^
left right
Here we have 2 zeroes to the left and 3 zeros to the right. This makes (2 + 1) * (3 + 1) = 12 sequences with sum 8 here:
5 1 2
5 1 2 0
5 1 2 0 0
5 1 2 0 0 0
0 5 1 2
0 5 1 2 0
0 5 1 2 0 0
0 5 1 2 0 0 0
0 0 5 1 2
0 0 5 1 2 0
0 0 5 1 2 0 0
0 0 5 1 2 0 0 0
I think this algorithm would work, using O(1) space.
We maintain two pointers to the beginning and end of the current subsequence, as well as the sum of the current subsequence. Initially, both pointers point to array[0], and the sum is obviously set to array[0].
Advance the end pointer (thus extending the subsequence to the right), and increase the sum by the value it points to, until that sum exceeds k. Then advance the start pointer (thus shrinking the subsequence from the left), and decrease the sum, until that sum gets below k. Keep doing this until the end pointer reaches the end of the array. Keep track of the number of times the sum was exactly k.

Why is x^0 = x?

I have a very simple question.
Why is a number when XOR'ed with 0 gives the number itself.
Can someone please give the proof using an example.
Lets say I have the number 5
5^0==>
I think the answer should be just the last bit of 5 XOR'ed with 0, but the answer is still 5.
0 is false, and 1 is true.
As per the definition, XOR operation A XOR B is "A or B, but not, A and B". So, since B is false, so the result will be A.
Also, XOR truth table shows that it outputs true whenever the inputs differ:
Input Output
A B XOR Result
0 0 0
0 1 1
1 0 1
1 1 0
As you can see, whatever be the value of A, if it is XORed with 0, the result is the bit itself.
So, as you say:
5 = 101, 0 = 000
When performing XOR operation on the individual bits:
101
000
----
101 = 5.
Hence, the result of X^0 is X itself.
What is there that you did not understand. Please read about XOR
00000101 // = 5
00000000 // = 0
--------
00000101 // = 5
Bit-wise operations operates on set of bits in number - not just on last bit.
So if you perform some bit-wise operation on 32-bit integer, then all 32 bits are affected. So integer 5 is 0.....0000101 (32 bits). If you need just the resulting last bit after xor operation apply binary AND with 1:
<script>
console.log("%i\n",(5^0)&1);
console.log("%i\n",(6^0)&1);
</script>

Counting ways of breaking up a string of digits into numbers under 26

Given a string of digits, I wish to find the number of ways of breaking up the string into individual numbers so that each number is under 26.
For example, "8888888" can only be broken up as "8 8 8 8 8 8 8". Whereas "1234567" can be broken up as "1 2 3 4 5 6 7", "12 3 4 5 6 7" and "1 23 4 5 6 7".
I'd like both a recurrence relation for the solution, and some code that uses dynamic programming.
This is what I've got so far. It only covers the base cases which are a empty string should return 1 a string of one digit should return 1 and a string of all numbers larger than 2 should return 1.
int countPerms(vector<int> number, int currentPermCount)
{
vector< vector<int> > permsOfNumber;
vector<int> working;
int totalPerms=0, size=number.size();
bool areAllOverTwo=true, forLoop = true;
if (number.size() <=1)
{
//TODO: print out permetations
return 1;
}
for (int i = 0; i < number.size()-1; i++) //minus one here because we dont care what the last digit is if all of them before it are over 2 then there is only one way to decode them
{
if (number.at(i) <= 2)
{
areAllOverTwo = false;
}
}
if (areAllOverTwo) //if all the nubmers are over 2 then there is only one possable combination 3456676546 has only one combination.
{
permsOfNumber.push_back(number);
//TODO: write function to print out the permetions
return 1;
}
do
{
//TODO find all the peremtions here
} while (forLoop);
return totalPerms;
}
Assuming you either don't have zeros, or you disallow numbers with leading zeros), the recurrence relations are:
N(1aS) = N(S) + N(aS)
N(2aS) = N(S) + N(aS) if a < 6.
N(a) = 1
N(aS) = N(S) otherwise
Here, a refers to a single digit, and S to a number. The first line of the recurrence relation says that if your string starts with a 1, then you can either have it on its own, or join it with the next digit. The second line says that if you start with a 2 you can either have it on its own, or join it with the next digit assuming that gives a number less than 26. The third line is the termination condition: when you're down to 1 digit, the result is 1. The final line says if you haven't been able to match one of the previous rules, then the first digit can't be joined to the second, so it must stand on its own.
The recurrence relations can be implemented fairly directly as an iterative dynamic programming solution. Here's code in Python, but it's easy to translate into other languages.
def N(S):
a1, a2 = 1, 1
for i in xrange(len(S) - 2, -1, -1):
if S[i] == '1' or S[i] == '2' and S[i+1] < '6':
a1, a2 = a1 + a2, a1
else:
a1, a2 = a1, a1
return a1
print N('88888888')
print N('12345678')
Output:
1
3
An interesting observation is that N('1' * n) is the n+1'st fibonacci number:
for i in xrange(1, 20):
print i, N('1' * i)
Output:
1 1
2 2
3 3
4 5
5 8
6 13
7 21
8 34
9 55
If I understand correctly, there are only 25 possibilities. My first crack at this would be to initialize an array of 25 ints all to zero and when I find a number less than 25, set that index to 1. Then I would count up all the 1's in the array when I was finished looking at the string.
What do you mean by recurrence? If you're looking for a recursive function, you would need to find a good way to break the string of numbers down recursively. I'm not sure that's the best approach here. I would just go through digit by digit and as you said if the digit is 2 or less, then store it and test appending the next digit... i.e. 10*digit + next. I hope that helped! Good luck.
Another way to think about it is that, after the initial single digit possibility, for every sequence of contiguous possible pairs of digits (e.g., 111 or 12223) of length n we multiply the result by:
1 + sum, i=1 to floor (n/2), of (n-i) choose i
For example, with a sequence of 11111, we can have
i=1, 1 1 1 11 => 5 - 1 = 4 choose 1 (possibilities with one pair)
i=2, 1 11 11 => 5 - 2 = 3 choose 2 (possibilities with two pairs)
This seems directly related to Wikipedia's description of Fibonacci numbers' "Use in Mathematics," for example, in counting "the number of compositions of 1s and 2s that sum to a given total n" (http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Fibonacci_number).
Using the combinatorial method (or other fast Fibonacci's) could be suitable for strings with very long sequences.

How to know if an index in a binary heap is on an odd level?

If I have a binary heap , with the typical properties of left neighbor of position "pos" being (2*pos)+1 while right neighbor is (2*pos)+2 and parent node in (pos-1) )/ 2, how can I efficiently determine if a given index represents a node on an odd level (with the level of the root being level 0) ?
(Disclaimer: This is a more complete answer based on Jarod42's comment.)
The formula you want is:
floor(log2(pos+1)) mod 2
To understand why, look at the levels of the first few nodes:
0 Level: 0
1 2 1
3 4 5 6 2
7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 3
0 -> 0
1 -> 1
2 -> 1
3 -> 2
...
6 -> 2
7 -> 3
...
The first step is to find a function that will map node numbers to level numbers in this way. Adding one to the number and taking a base 2 logarithm will give you almost (but not quite) what you want:
log2 (0+1) = log2 1 = 0
log2 (1+1) = log2 2 = 1
log2 (2+1) = log2 3 = 1.6 (roughly)
log2 (3+1) = log2 4 = 2
....
log2 (6+1) = log2 7 = 2.8 (roughly)
log2 (7+1) = log2 8 = 3
You can see from this that rounding down to the nearest integer in each case will give you the level of each node, hence giving us floor(log2(pos+1)).
As Jarod42 said, it's then a case of looking at the parity of the level number, which just involves taking the number mod 2. This will give either 0 (the level is even) or 1 (the level is odd).