How does qobject_cast work? - c++

I just found the following code in Qt and I'm a bit confused what's happening here.
Especially as to what reinterpret_cast<T>(0) does?
template <class T>
inline T qobject_cast(const QObject *object)
{
// this will cause a compilation error if T is not const
register T ptr = static_cast<T>(object);
Q_UNUSED(ptr);
#if !defined(QT_NO_MEMBER_TEMPLATES) && !defined(QT_NO_QOBJECT_CHECK)
reinterpret_cast<T>(0)->qt_check_for_QOBJECT_macro(*reinterpret_cast<T>(const_cast<QObject *>(object)));
#endif
return static_cast<T>(const_cast<QObject *>(reinterpret_cast<T>(0)->staticMetaObject.cast(const_cast<QObject *>(object))));
}
Anyone care to explain?

This is a little complicated...
Remember that qobject_cast<T>(obj) is a way to dynamically cast a QObject to the target type T which also derives from QObject. Now, for this to work, the macro Q_OBJECT should be included in the definition of class T.
Apparently, the qt_check_for_QOBJECT_macro call is for checking that the class really contains the Q_OBJECT macro. When the macro is expanded, it contains the following definitions:
template <typename T> inline void qt_check_for_QOBJECT_macro(const T &_q_argument) const
{ int i = qYouForgotTheQ_OBJECT_Macro(this, &_q_argument); i = i; }
template <typename T1, typename T2>
inline int qYouForgotTheQ_OBJECT_Macro(T, T) { return 0; }
So if you have an object x of type T and an object y of type U, the call x->qt_check_for_QOBJECT_macro(y) calls the function qYouForgotTheQ_OBJECT_Macro with parameters of types T* and U*. Because the function is templated with a single type parameter, the types T and U must be the same.
Now, if you call x->qt_check_for_QOBJECT_macro(x) then you should expect the types to be the same and for the compilation to trivially succeed. However, remember that this has the same type as the class the method was defined in. So if x is of a class that was derived from T but doesn't contain its own definition of qt_check_for_QOBJECT_macro, the call will fail.
So we have a way to check if the target type T contains the correct mechanism for the dynamic cast, but we don't have a object of type T to call this method on yet. That's what the reinterpret_cast<T>(0) is for. We don't need an actual object as this, since the compiler only needs the object types for the check to succeed. Instead, we call a method on a null pointer of type T.
I don't think this is allowed by the C++ standard, but it works since this isn't actually used inside the method.

Related

In the Curiously Recurring Template Pattern (CRTP), when does the dependent type name become a complete type?

I want to have classes with a static data member knowing the class's complete size. This is for storing singleton instances, in case you want to know the actual use case of this.
In my naive implementation of this feature, I wanted to use a mixin class to add the special data member to my class. The mixin class would have to know the complete class (in order to know the complete class's size), so I implement it using the Curiously Recurring Template Pattern, a little bit like this:
template<class ObjectType>
class SingletonOf
{
static inline /* some type same size as ObjectType */ instance_memory;
public:
void *operator new(std::size_t)
{
return &instance_memory;
}
void operator delete(void *)
{
}
};
class foo : public SingletonOf<foo> // CRTP used here, to let SingletonOf know foo
{
// foo data members...
// foo member functions...
};
void bar() {
foo *p = new foo; // calls SingletonOf<foo>::operator new and returns the instance memory
}
Cute, right? Well, I learned that the following in C++20 is ill-formed (note: in all the code samples below, the class foo and the function bar() do not change. Also I will not keep writing the empty definition of SingletonOf::operator delete, because you can remember that it's there):
template<class ObjectType>
class SingletonOf
{
static char inline instance_memory[sizeof(ObjectType)]; // syntax error: incomplete type
public:
void *operator new(std::size_t) { return instance_memory; }
...
Now, we will all agree the reason why that is ill-formed - and I am not complaining, just informing - is that ObjectType is foo, and until the closing brace of foo, foo is an incomplete type. And, obviously, sizeof cannot be called on incomplete types. So, I am fine with that. However, the following using a nested class-template does work - at least according to clang++ in c++20 mode, I think?
template<class ObjectType>
class SingletonOf
{
template<class CompleteObjectType>
struct InstanceMemory
{
static char inline instance_memory[sizeof(CompleteObjectType)];
};
public:
void *operator new(std::size_t) {
return InstanceMemory<ObjectType>::instance_memory;
}
...
Now my question is: why does that work? Or, let's start with the more fundamental question: does that work, actually? As of this writing, just to be clear, I have not verified that bar() actually calls the intended operator new and returns the foo-sized instance memory. Probably, should do that. But I'm busy. What I do know at this time, is that my clang++ in c++20 mode compiles it. This compilation includes compiling the function bar(), which allows me to be certain it instantiates the template. So that is to back up my contention that the compiler is accepting it. There are no errors or warnings give, just an output object file.
If I am right that this second code is well-formed, then it looks like ObjectType (= foo) in the body of operator new in the second code sample, is considered a complete type. How did that happen?
This isn’t really any different from having InstanceMemory defined in a namespace: until it is instantiated, its template argument need not be complete. This separation works because it removes the presumption that you should be able to use decltype(SingletonOf::instance_memory) immediately after declaring it.
When SingletonOf<ObjectType> is being instantiated, ObjectType is incomplete. That's why you can't get the size of it.
However, the member function bodies of SingletonOf work as if they are placed just after the type. And those functions get instantiated at a point when ObjectType is complete. This is why ObjectType is complete and visible to member functions of SingletonOf<ObjectType>.
Your inner struct InstanceMemory is itself a template. And you instantiate it within a member function of the outer template. Since that member function sees ObjectType as complete, so too does InstanceMemory<ObjectType>.
All you have to do is make sure to instantiate InstanceMemory<ObjectType> at a point where ObjectType is complete.

Is std::iterator inherints from a sort of auto_ptr?

I am a beginner in STL. I'm trying to code a toystl to learn STL. When I code about iterator, I'm puzzled if I should code a simple auto_ptr first and inherint from it.
I wrote a base class called iterator. And now it works like this,
struct iterator{};
template <class T>
struct vector_itorater: public toystl::iterator<toystl::random_access_iterator_tag, T>{};
If i need another base class works like a "auto_ptr"? just like this
// firstly define a sort of auto_ptr as base class
struct auto_ptr{};
// secondly inherint from auto_ptr
template <class T>
struct vector_itorater: public auto_ptr{};
Does this work? Or does STL do it like this?
I think you mixed up runtime polymorphy and compile time polymorphy. When the compiler instantiates a template, it cares about its visible interface of the concrete object. It does not care if this object has a inheritance relationship with other classes, it will pass as long as the concrete object can be used within the concrete context.
template <class C>
void foo(const C& bar)
{
// at the time of writing we don't know anything of C,
// only that it has a callable baz member (either a
// member function or a member with a call operator).
// This works, since the compiler knows the exact type
// during template instantiation, but we don't have to
// care in advance.
bar.baz();
}
struct X
{
void baz() const;
};
void grml()
{
X x;
// The compiler fills in X as the template type
// parameter for us. So the compiler creates a
// void foo<X>(const X&) function for us.
foo(x);
}
In this example when the compiler sees the template, it has no clue how this template will be called later. Only once the template gets instantiated (used), the compiler then will check if the passed type is suitable for this template.
Here it is not needed to have a common base class to derive every possible implementation from. The STL uses templates in order to avoid to use such base classes, since they give you a burden on your design later, and if you have virtual members in the base to override, you can get a serious performance penalty.

Using Any class (similar to boost::any) in other templates

I have implemented a pure C++11 Any class (based on this code) which is similar to boost::any and works nicely if used directly.
However I need to use this now as template parameter to assign parameters to variables. Look at this:
class A {
IRecognizer<Any, Any> *_recognizer;
template <typename T1, typename T2>
A(IRecognizer<T1, T2> *x) : _recognizer(x) {
}
}
and
template<typename Symbol, typename ATNInterpreter>
class IRecognizer {
public:
virtual int getState() = 0;
};
Even though I could assign each template parameter to an Any variable, I'm not allowed to assign IRecognizer<T1, T2> to IRecognizer<Any, Any>. Is there a solution for this problem? The error message is:
Cannot initialize a member subobject of type 'IRecognizer<Any, Any> *'
with an lvalue of type 'IRecognizer<Token *, ParserATNSimulator *> *'
The reason I use the Any class is to have a common type that could be assigned with any class reference (similar to Java's Object, but C++ has no common object type from which all other classes derive).
Maybe a different approach is possible here? I'm open for suggestions.
You are trying to convert a IRecognizer<T1, T2> * to a IRecognizer<Any, Any> *. The only allowed pointer conversion is from a derived class pointer to a base class pointer (i.e. Derived* to Base*) or to a more cv-qualified pointer to the same type (i.e. Derived* to Derived const*) or both.
IRecognizer<T1,T2> is not in the same class hierarchy as IRecognizer<Any, Any>. They are two unrelated types. You can add a constructor to convert an IRecognizer<A,B> to an IRecognizer<C,D> if that makes sense, but you can't add a similar thing for pointers.
A pointer to X is not the same as an X.
While you can convert an X into a Y (a IRecognizer<T1,T2> into an IRecognizer<Any,Any>), you cannot convert a pointer to X into a pointer to Y.
You may not want a pointer here. Instead, you might want a value.
However, an interface is not a value.
Java generics are not like C++ templates. A Java generic Bob<Type> is a wrapper around Bob<Object> -- it is actually storing an Object, with a bunch of wrapping casts to-and-from in a layer on top of it.
You can write such wrappers in C++. As an example:
class IRecognizer_base {
public:
virtual int getState() = 0;
};
template<typename Symbol, typename ATNInterpreter>
class IRecognizer:public IRecognizer_base {
};
Now, suppose getState() returned a Symbol:
class IRecognizer_base {
public:
virtual Any getState_() = 0;
};
template<typename Symbol, typename ATNInterpreter>
class IRecognizer:public IRecognizer_base {
public:
inline Symbol getState() {
return getState_(); // whatever conversion required to go from `Any` to `Symbol`
}
};
here, we expose the fact that our objects actually return an Any, but in the interface we cast them over.
If you actually exposed what operations are actually different based on the template types, you can do type erasing tactics that let you store anything that can do those operations instead of a pointer to a specific type.

Any way to determine if class implements operator()

I'm trying to find is there's a way to check if a class is a functional because i want to write a template which uses it?
Is there an easy way to do this? Or do I just wrap things in a try/catch? Or perhaps the compiler won't even let me do it?
If you have a function template written like:
template <typename T>
void f(T x)
{
x();
}
you will be unable to instantiate it with any type that is not callable as a function taking no arguments (e.g., a class type that overloads operator() taking no arguments is callable as a function that takes no arguments). You would get a compilation error if you tried to do so.
This is the simplest way to require the type with which a template is instantiated to have certain properties: just rely on the type having those properties when you write the template, and if the type doesn't have one of the required properties, it will be impossible to instantiate the template with that type.
There are quite a few ways a parameter type can be applicable to the call syntax
Type is a pointer or reference to a function type, or
Type is a class-type which has a conversion function to one of the types in 1., or has an applicable operator().
The current C++ cannot check for 2., so you are left without checking, like the other answers explain.
This would fall under doing it and getting a compiling error. When the code is compiled the template function or template classes are are expanded for the types used as if there were duplicate copies of that template code, one for each type.
So you can basically do whatever and as long as all the types used for your templates support it you have no problem. If they don't support it you have a compiling error and you can't run your code without fixing it.
template <typename T>
void DoIt(T a)
{
a.helloworld();//This will compile fine
return a();//This will cause a compiling error if T is B
}
class A
{
public:
void a.helloworld(){}
void operator()(){}
};
class B
{
public:
void a.helloworld(){}
};
int main(int argc, char**argv)
{
A a;
B b;
DoIt(a);
DoIt(b);//Compiling error
return 0;
}
If you actually need a test to see if type T implements an operator() of some given signature then you could use the same SFINAE trick used to identify the existence of any other class member that is discussed here: C++ "if then else" template substitution

Static array of const pointers to overloaded, templatized member function

Static array initialization... with const pointers... to overloaded, templatized member functions. Is there a way it can be done (C++03 standard code)? I mean, if I have the template class
template <class T1, class U1, typename R1>
class Some_class {
public:
typedef T1 T;
typedef U1 U;
typedef R1 R;
R operator()(T& v) { /* dereference pointer to a derived class (U),
overloaded member function (U::f) */ };
private:
static R (U::* const pmfi[/* # of overloaded functions in U */])(T&);
};
Used as
template <class BASE, typename RET>
class Other_class : public Some_class<BASE, Other_class<BASE, RET>, RET> {
RET f(/* type derived from BASE */) {}
RET f(/* other type derived from BASE */) {}
RET f(/* another type derived from BASE */) {}
...
};
Question: how can I initialize de array pmfi (no typedefs, please)?
Notes:
1. As a static array MUST be initialized at file scope, template parameters and pmfi must be full qualified (the only way I know to access template parameters outside a class scope is to typedef them...).
2. So far so good. No problems with the compiler (Comeau 4.3.10.1). Problems start popping up when I try to fullfill the initializer list { ... }.
2.1. The compiler complains the template argument list is missing, no matter what I do.
2.2. I have no idea how to select the correct overloaded U::f function.
BTW, this is a kind of "jump table" generator from a boost.preprocessor list. The code I am trying to implement is of course much more complex then this one, but this is his essence.
Thanks for any help
To use BOOST_PP_ENUM in the way that you've shown, you would need a macro that takes a 'number' and yields an expression that is the address of an appropriate member of the appropriate class. I don't see a good way to do this without an explicit list unless the desired functions all have manufactured names (e.g. memfun1, memfun2, etc.). Except in the case, it's going to be easier to list the function address expressions explicitly that to used BOOST_PP_ENUM.
You are using identifiers in this array that are the same as the template parameters in Some_class.
R (U::* const pmfi[])(T&) = { /* ... */ }
Is this really supposed to be the templated member of Some_class?
template< class T, class U, class R >
R (U::* const Some_class<T, U, R>::pmfi[])(T&) = { /* ... */ }
If so, is the same instantiation going to work with all combinations of types that you are going to us the template Some_class with? If so, you have a very constrained set of classes, perhaps you can do away with the template. If not, you are going to have to specialize Some_class for every combination of template parameters in which case the template is not gaining you very much.
Edit, post edit: If I've understood you correctly then you can't do what you've suggested because the array of pointers must be of exactly the right signature.
Reducing it to a simple function pointer example, you can't do this:
void f(Derived&);
void (*p)(Base&) = &f;
otherwise, it would subvert type safety:
OtherDerived od; // derived from Base, but no from Derived
// I've managed to pass something that isn't a Derived reference to f
// without an explicit (and dangerous) cast
(*p)(od);
In your array of function pointers, the initializers must all be to functions of the right signature.