A single-player board game. The board is made up of a row of n cells numbered 1 to n from left to
right. Cell ‘j' contains a positive integer cj.
The rules are like this:
You start on the leftmost cell.
On each turn, you roll a fair 6-sided die with A as the outcome number. You
move forward A × cj cells, where j is the index of the cell that you are standing
on.
You win once you exit the board i.e., you win when your index j > n.
For instance, consider the board of size n=10
To begin with, you are at the first cell having the value c1 = 2. In the first turn, you roll a dice
and obtain a value 1, so you move forward 2 cells. Then on the next roll you roll a 5 on cell 3
(with c3 = 4), so you move forward 20 cells makes you exit the board. You win!! You took 2
turns to win.
How to calculate the expected number of turns needed to win using dynamic programming algorithm that runs in time (n) for the above game?
The recurrence relation you're looking for is:
E[j] = 0 (if j > n)
E[j] = 1 + 1/6 * sum_k(E[j + k * c_j]) (otherwise, for k \in 1..6)
For each cell, calculate how many turns to win on average.
For cell[k] with k>=n, this is 0.
For other cells with k<n, it 1 plus the average of turns to win at cell[1..6*c_k].
Cache results and don't recalculate them.
Return turns to win from cell 0.
Yes, this is seemingly nothing non-obvious. Dynamic programming is seeming to do nothing non-obvious, with an appropriately bounded cache in the middle of the naive algorithm.
The trick is arranging the problem to have a cache with good bounds that makes a naive algorithm collapse into not doing much work.
Related
I want to maximize the total probability of winning in a game of random selection which is played as follows,
I have n lottery tickets and out of these n only 1 is the lucky ticket, now I have 2 option either draw a ticket or ask the master to remove some X unlucky ticket out of total tickets, X must be a multiple of k (available) and X must be smaller than total number of tickets.
If i draw an unlucky ticket master will add k unlucky tickets to the pile of tickets.
We have at max m moves to play, each move is one of the following
Either we draw a ticket
Either we ask master to remove X tickets (X is multiple of k)
I want to maximize the probability.
And output the total probability P/Q as P*Q^(-1) where Q is modular inverse of Q.
After observing and playing the game I think the total probability will be maximum only when we play the game in the following way
First move we draw a ticket and probability of winning is 1/n.
If we draw an unlucky ticket in first move k tickets are added and we can ask the master to remove k tickets in second move.
In third move we again draw ticket and probability of winning now is
((n-1)/n)*(1/n) .
Similarly if there are m moves than we can conclude that, total probability of winning is (1-((n-1)/n)^r) where we can find value of r
n
for example :
n = 3 k = 20 m = 3
total probability is 1-(2/3)^2 = 5/9
n = 5 k = 7 m = 1
total probability of winning is = 1/5
Final output :
5*(9)^(-1) % 1000000007 = 555555560
1*(5)^(-1) % 1000000007 = 400000003
If there is other winning strategy in this game please provide it with proof and i don't have a proof for my strategy too so if you can prove my strategy i will be glad to have it as well as a psuedocode will help me to proceed.
we again put the ticket that we picked in the pile again so after drawing wrong we have n+k instead of n+k-1, and also n < k ( for the starting always)
EDIT : Proof of my strategy
for each move we take there are 2 possibilities
either we gain 1/n*(n-1)/n or we gain (n-1)/n*(1/n+k) + (n-1/n)((n+k-1)/n+k)(1/n+2*k)
now after solving both sides we get to equation 1/n left hand side and right hand side is (2*n+3*k-1)/((n+2*k)*(n+k) and i found that R.H.S is always less than or equals to R.H.S
So after further solving i get L.H.S as 2*(k^2) and R.H.S as n^2-n and as given n < k so L.H.S is always greater than R.H.s
Hence proved.
Please provide feedback for the proof.
Your strategy is incorrect. After drawing an unlucky ticket, you would ask the master to remove k tickets, but if you had started playing in exactly the same state, you would have picked a ticket instead. That does not make sense, because the game has no memory of your previous moves, and the present situation should therefore always dictate the best choice.
Let P(n,m,k) be the probability of winning with n tickets, max m moves, and k, with optimal strategy.
If you pick a ticket, then the probability is 1/n + P(n+k-1, m-1, k)*(n-1)/n.
If you don't then the probability is P(n-k, m-1, k)
The optimal choice is the one with best probability, and so:
P(n,m,k) = max( 1/n + P(n+k-1, m-1, k)*(n-1)/n , P(n-k, m-1, k) )
You can could calculate this recursively, with memoization since there are likely to be overlapping subproblems, i.e., with dynamic programming.
Problem statement:
Input:
First two inputs are integers n and m. n is the number of knights fighting in the tournament (2 <= n <= 100000, 1 <= m <= n-1). m is the number of battles that will take place.
The next line contains n power levels.
The next m lines contain two integers l and r, indicating the range of knight positions to compete in the ith battle.
After each battle, all nights apart from the one with the highest power level will be eliminated.
The range for each battle is given in terms of the new positions of the knights, not the original positions.
Output:
Output m lines, the ith line containing the original positions (indices) of the knights from that battle. Each line is in ascending order.
Sample Input:
8 4
1 0 5 6 2 3 7 4
1 3
2 4
1 3
0 1
Sample Output:
1 2
4 5
3 7
0
Here is a visualisation of this process.
1 2
[(1,0),(0,1),(5,2),(6,3),(2,4),(3,5),(7,6),(4,7)]
-----------------
4 5
[(1,0),(6,3),(2,4),(3,5),(7,6),(4,7)]
-----------------
3 7
[(1,0),(6,3),(7,6),(4,7)]
-----------------
0
[(1,0),(7,6)]
-----------
[(7,6)]
I have solved this problem. My program produces the correct output, however, it is O(n*m) = O(n^2). I believe that if I erase knights more efficiently from the vector, efficiency can be increased. Would it be more efficient to erase elements using a set? I.e. erase contiguous segments rather that individual knights. Is there an alternative way to do this that is more efficient?
#define INPUT1(x) scanf("%d", &x)
#define INPUT2(x, y) scanf("%d%d", &x, &y)
#define OUTPUT1(x) printf("%d\n", x);
int main(int argc, char const *argv[]) {
int n, m;
INPUT2(n, m);
vector< pair<int,int> > knights(n);
for (int i = 0; i < n; i++) {
int power;
INPUT(power);
knights[i] = make_pair(power, i);
}
while(m--) {
int l, r;
INPUT2(l, r);
int max_in_range = knights[l].first;
for (int i = l+1; i <= r; i++) if (knights[i].first > max_in_range) {
max_in_range = knights[i].first;
}
int offset = l;
int range = r-l+1;
while (range--) {
if (knights[offset].first != max_in_range) {
OUTPUT1(knights[offset].second));
knights.erase(knights.begin()+offset);
}
else offset++;
}
printf("\n");
}
}
Well, removing from vector wouldn't be efficient for sure. Removing from set, or unordered set would be more effective (use iterators instead of indexes).
Yet the problem will still remain O(n^2), because you have two nested whiles running n*m times.
--EDIT--
I believe I understand the question now :)
First let's calculate the complexity of your code above. Your worst case would be the case that max range in all battles is 1 (two nights for each battle) and the battles are not ordered with respect to the position. Which means you have m battles (in this case m = n-1 ~= O(n))
The first while loop runs n times
For runs for once every time which makes it n*1 = n in total
The second while loop runs once every time which makes it n again.
Deleting from vector means n-1 shifts that makes it O(n).
Thus with the complexity of the vector total complexity is O(n^2)
First of all, you don't really need the inner for loop. Take the first knight as the max in range, compare the rest in the range one-by-one and remove the defeated ones.
Now, i believe it can be done in O(nlogn) with using std::map. The key to the map is the position and the value is the level of the knight.
Before proceeding, finding and removing an element in map is logarithmic, iterating is constant.
Finally, your code should look like:
while(m--) // n times
strongest = map.find(first_position); // find is log(n) --> n*log(n)
for (opponent = next of strongest; // this will run 1 times, since every range is 1
opponent in range;
opponent = next opponent) // iterating is constant
// removing from map is log(n) --> n * 1 * log(n)
if strongest < opponent
remove strongest, opponent is the new strongest
else
remove opponent, (be careful to remove it after iterating to next)
Ok, now the upper bound would be O(2*nlogn) = O(nlogn). If the ranges increases, that makes the run time of upper loop decrease but increases the number of remove operations. I'm sure the upper bound won't change, let's make it a homework for you to calculate :)
A solution with a treap is pretty straightforward.
For each query, you need to split the treap by implicit key to obtain the subtree that corresponds to the [l, r] range (it takes O(log n) time).
After that, you can iterate over the subtree and find the knight with the maximum strength. After that, you just need to merge the [0, l) and [r + 1, end) parts of the treap with the node that corresponds to this knight.
It's clear that all parts of the solution except for the subtree traversal and printing work in O(log n) time per query. However, each operation reinserts only one knight and erase the rest from the range, so the size of the output (and the sum of sizes of subtrees) is linear in n. So the total time complexity is O(n log n).
I don't think you can solve with standard stl containers because there'no standard container that supports getting an iterator by index quickly and removing arbitrary elements.
I have a 2D matrix of positive real values, stored as follow:
vector<vector<double>> matrix;
Each cell can have a value equal or greater to 0, and this value represents the possibility of the cell to be chosen. In particular, for example, a cell with a value equals to 3 has three times the probability to be chosen compared to a cell with value 1.
I need to select N cells of the matrix (0 <= N <= total number of cells) randomly, but according to their probability to be selected.
How can I do that?
The algorithm should be as fast as possible.
I describe two methods, A and B.
A works in time approximately N * number of cells, and uses space O(log number of cells). It is good when N is small.
B works in time approximately (number of cells + N) * O(log number of cells), and uses space O(number of cells). So, it is good when N is large (or even, 'medium') but uses a lot more memory, in practice it might be slower in some regimes for that reason.
Method A:
The first thing you need to do is normalize the entries. (It's not clear to me if you assume they are normalized or not.) That means, sum all the entries and divide by the sum. (This part is potentially slow, so it's better if you assume or require that it already happened.)
Then you sample like this:
Choose a random [i,j] entry of the matrix (by choosing i,j each uniformly randomly from the range of integers 0 to n-1).
Choose a uniformly random real number p in the range [0, 1].
Check if matrix[i][j] > p. If so, return the pair [i][j]. If not, go back to step 1.
Why does this work? The probability that we end at step 3 with any particular output, is equal to, the probability that [i][j] was selected (this is the same for each entry), times the probality that the number p was small enough. This is proportional to the value matrix[i][j], so the sampling is choosing each entry with the correct proportions. It's also possible that at step 3 we go back to the start -- does that bias things? Basically, no. The reason is, suppose we arbitrarily choose a number k and then consider the distribution of the algorithm, conditioned on stopping exactly after k rounds. Conditioned on the assumption that we stop at the k'th round, no matter what value k we choose, the distribution we sample has to be exactly right by the above argument. Since if we eliminate the case that p is too small, the other possibilities all have their proportions correct. Since the distribution is perfect for each value of k that we might condition on, and the overall distribution (not conditioned on k) is an average of the distributions for each value of k, the overall distribution is perfect also.
If you want to analyze the number of rounds that typically needed in a rigorous way, you can do it by analyzing the probability that we actually stop at step 3 for any particular round. Since the rounds are independent, this is the same for every round, and statistically, it means that the running time of the algorithm is poisson distributed. That means it is tightly concentrated around its mean, and we can determine the mean by knowing that probability.
The probability that we stop at step 3 can be determined by considering the conditional probability that we stop at step 3, given that we chose any particular entry [i][j]. By the formulas for conditional expectation, you get that
Pr[ stop at step 3 ] = sum_{i,j} ( 1/(n^2) * Matrix[i,j] )
Since we assumed the matrix is normalized, this sum reduces to just 1/n^2. So, the expected number of rounds is about n^2 (that is, n^2 up to a constant factor) no matter what the entries in the matrix are. You can't hope to do a lot better than that I think -- that's about the same amount of time it takes to just read all the entries of the matrix, and it's hard to sample from a distribution that you cannot even read all of.
Note: What I described is a way to correctly sample a single element -- to get N elements from one matrix, you can just repeat it N times.
Method B:
Basically you just want to compute a histogram and sample inversely from it, so that you know you get exactly the right distribution. Computing the histogram is expensive, but once you have it, getting samples is cheap and easy.
In C++ it might look like this:
// Make histogram
typedef unsigned int uint;
typedef std::pair<uint, uint> upair;
typedef std::map<double, upair> histogram_type;
histogram_type histogram;
double cumulative = 0.0f;
for (uint i = 0; i < Matrix.size(); ++i) {
for (uint j = 0; j < Matrix[i].size(); ++j) {
cumulative += Matrix[i][j];
histogram[cumulative] = std::make_pair(i,j);
}
}
std::vector<upair> result;
for (uint k = 0; k < N; ++k) {
// Do a sample (this should never repeat... if it does not find a lower bound you could also assert false quite reasonably since it means something is wrong with rand() implementation)
while(1) {
double p = cumulative * rand(); // Or, for best results use std::mt19937 or boost::mt19937 and sample a real in the range [0,1] here.
histogram_type::iterator it = histogram::lower_bound(p);
if (it != histogram.end()) {
result.push_back(it->second);
break;
}
}
}
return result;
Here the time to make the histogram is something like number of cells * O(log number of cells) since inserting into the map takes time O(log n). You need an ordered data structure in order to get cheap lookup N * O(log number of cells) later when you do repeated sampling. Possibly you could choose a more specialized data structure to go faster, but I think there's only limited room for improvement.
Edit: As #Bob__ points out in comments, in method (B) a written there is potentially going to be some error due to floating point round-off if the matrices are quite large, even using type double, at this line:
cumulative += Matrix[i][j];
The problem is that, if cumulative is much larger than Matrix[i][j] beyond what the floating point precision can handle then these each time this statement is executed you may observe significant errors which accumulate to introduce significant inaccuracy.
As he suggests, if that happens, the most straightforward way to fix it is to sort the values Matrix[i][j] first. You could even do this in the general implementation to be safe -- sorting these guys isn't going to take more time asymptotically than you already have anyways.
Given a list of N players who are to play a 2 player game. Each of them are either well versed in making a particular move or they are not. Find out the maximum number of moves a 2-player team can know.
And also find out how many teams can know that maximum number of moves?
Example Let we have 4 players and 5 moves with ith player is versed in jth move if a[i][j] is 1 otherwise it is 0.
10101
11100
11010
00101
Here maximum number of moves a 2-player team can know is 5 and their are two teams that can know that maximum number of moves.
Explanation : (1, 3) and (3, 4) know all the 5 moves. So the maximal moves a 2-player team knows is 5, and only 2 teams can acheive this.
My approach : For each pair of players i check if any of the players is versed in ith move or not and for each player maintain the maximum pairs he can make with other players with his local maximum move combination.
vector<int> pairmemo;
for(int i=0;i<n;i++){
int mymax=INT_MIN;
int countpairs=0;
for(int j=i+1;j<n;j++){
int count=0;
for(int k=0;k<m;k++){
if(arr[i][k]==1 || arr[j][k]==1)
{
count++;
}
}
if(mymax<count){
mymax=count;
countpairs=0;
}
if(mymax==count){
countpairs++;
}
}
pairmemo.push_back(countpairs);
maxmemo.push_back(mymax);
}
Overall maximum of all N players is answer and count is corresponding sum of the pairs being calculated.
for(int i=0;i<n;i++){
if(maxi<maxmemo[i])
maxi=maxmemo[i];
}
int countmaxi=0;
for(int i=0;i<n;i++){
if(maxmemo[i]==maxi){
countmaxi+=pairmemo[i];
}
}
cout<<maxi<<"\n";
cout<<countmaxi<<"\n";
Time complexity : O((N^2)*M)
Code :
How can i improve it?
Constraints : N<= 3000 and M<=1000
If you represent each set of moves by a very large integer, the problem boils down to finding pair of players (I, J) which have maximum number of bits set in MovesI OR MovesJ.
So, you can use bit-packing and compress all the information on moves in Long integer array. It would take 16 unsigned long integers to store according to the constraints. So, for each pair of players you OR the corresponding arrays and count number of ones. This would take O(N^2 * 16) which would run pretty fast given the constraints.
Example:
Lets say given matrix is
11010
00011
and you used 4-bit integer for packing it.
It would look like:
1101-0000
0001-1000
that is,
13,0
1,8
After OR the moves array for 2 player team becomes 13,8, now count the bits which are one. You have to optimize the counting of bits also, for that read the accepted answer here, otherwise the factor M would appear in complexity. Just maintain one count variable and one maxNumberOfBitsSet variable as you process the pairs.
What Ill do is:
1. Do logical OR between all the possible pairs - O(N^2) and store it's SUM in a 2D array with the symmetric diagonal ignored. (thats we save half of the calc - see example)
2. find the max value in the 2D Array (can be done while doing task 1) -> O(1)
3. count how many cells in the 2D array equals to the maximum value in task 2 O(N^2)
sum: 2*O(N^2)+ O(1) => O(N^2)
Example (using the data in the question (with letters indexes):
A[10101] B[11100] C[11010] D[00101]
Task 1:
[A|B] = 11101 = SUM(4)
[A|C] = 11111 = SUM(5)
[A|D] = 10101 = SUM(3)
[B|C] = 11110 = SUM(4)
[B|D] = 11101 = SUM(4)
[C|D] = 11111 = SUM(5)
Task 2 (Done while is done 1):
Max = 5
Task 3:
Count = 2
By the way, O(N^2) is the minimum possible since you HAVE to check all the possible pairs.
Since you have to find all solutions, unless you find a way to find a count without actually finding the solutions themselves, you have to actually look at or eliminate all possible solutions. So the worst case will always be O(N^2*M), which I'll call O(n^3) as long as N and M are both big and similar size.
However, you can hope for much better performance on the average case by pruning.
Don't check every case. Find ways to eliminate combinations without checking them.
I would sum and store the total number of moves known to each player, and sort the array rows by that value. That should provide an easy check for exiting the loop early. Sorting at O(n log n) should be basically free in an O(n^3) algorithm.
Use Priyank's basic idea, except with bitsets, since you obviously can't use a fixed integer type with 3000 bits.
You may benefit from making a second array of bitsets for the columns, and use that as a mask for pruning players.
I came accross this question in a programming contest, i think it can be solved by DP but cannot think of any, so plz help. Here's the questn :
There are n stack of coins placed linearly, each labelled from 1 to n. You also have a sack of coins containing infinite coins with you. All the coins in the stacks and the sack are identical. All you have to do is to make the heights of coins non-decreasing.
You select two stacks i and j and place one coin on each of the stacks of coins from stack'i' to stack'j' (inclusive). This complete operations is considered as one move. You have to minimize the number of moves to make the heights non-decreasing.
No. of Test Cases < 50
1 <= n <= 10^5
0 <= hi <= 10^9
Input Specification :
There will be a number of test cases. Read till EOF. First line of each test case will contain a single integer n, second line contains n heights (h[i]) of stacks.
Output Specification :
Output single integer denoting the number of moves for each test case.
for eg: H={3,2,1}
answer is 2
step1: i=2, j=3, H = {3,3,2}
step2: i=3, j=3, H = {3,3,3}