I am currently stuck at this thing.
I have a range of cdf's from something like from 0.12 or 0.25 to 1. The lowerbound is dynamic depending on some counts. I want to change this to a range from 0 to 1. But I cannot think of anything right now.
If you have values [a, 1] and you want to project them on [0, 1] you can use the following formula:
newVal = (oldVal - a) / (1.0 - a);
Related
Greeting,
I'm trying to find a formula to convert a range where:
min = -100db and max = -30db
to:
min = 0 and max = 255
for example: -60db = ?
Seems easy but it makes my head spin.
Assuming you mean the result to stay in terms of db, you're asking for a simple linear interpolation:
f(x) = ymin + (x - xmin)*(ymax - ymin)/(xmax - xmin)
or in your case,
f(x) = 0 + (x + 100)*(255 - 0)/(-30 + 100)
f(-60 db) = 145.714
If instead you're talking about converting db to a scale factor with which to multiply an audio signal, then it's a bit more complex. For example, to multiply an audio signal by 0 is negative infinity db. So (at the very least) you'd have to special case that.
I have one value that is a floating point percentage from 0-100, x, and another value that is a floating point from 0-1, y. As y gets closer to zero, it should reduce the value of x on a logarithmic curve.
So for example, say x = 28.0f and y = 0.8f. Since 0.8f isn't that far from 1.0f it should only reduce the value of x by a small amount, say bringing it down to x = 25.0f or something like that. As y gets closer to zero it should more and more drastically reduce the value of x. The only way I can think of doing this is with a logarithmic curve. I know what I want it to do, but I cannot for the life of me figure out how to implement this in C++. What would this algorithm look like in C++?
It sounds like you want this:
new_x = x * ln((e - 1) * y + 1)
I'm assuming you have the natural log function ln and the constant e. The number multiplied by x is a logarithmic function of y which is 0 when y = 0 and 1 when y = 1.
Here's the logic behind that function (this is basically a math problem, not a programming problem). You want something that looks like the ln function, rising steeply at first and then leveling off. But you want it to start at (0, 0) and then pass through (1, 1), and ln starts at (1, 0) and passes through (e, 1). That suggests that before you do the ln, you do a simple linear shift that takes 0 to 1 and 1 to e: ((e - 1) * y + 1.
We can try with the following assumption: we need a function f(y) so that f(0)=0 and f(1)=1 which follows some logarithmic curve, may be something like f(y)=Alog(B+Cy), with A, B and C constants to be determined.
f(0)=0, so B=1
f(1)=1, so A=1/log(1+C)
So now, just need to find a C value so that f(0.8) is roughly equal to 25/28. A few experiment shows that C=4 is rather close. You can find closer if you want.
So one possibility would be: f(y) = log(1.0 + 4.0*y) / log(5.0)
In the last example of this post (http://www.daniweb.com/software-development/cpp/threads/1769/c-random-numbers), the author claims that it is a better method for producing random numbers. However, I read this line and am still confused as to what is trying to do.
random_integer = lowest+int(range*rand()/(RAND_MAX + 1.0));
I tested this code but it kept producing the value of "1" every single time.
I hope someone can provide clarification.
Say you want to generate random integer in the range [a, b). This can be accomplished by generating random integer in the range [0, b - a) and adding a:
random_integer = a + rand(0, b - a)
We can generate random integers in the range [0, RAND_MAX] using the ordinary rand(). Now, we need to scale this interval to fit [0, r), r = b - a. Since RAND_MAX is the maximal value returned by rand(), rand() / (MAX_RAND + 1.0) is in [0, 1). So, r * rand() / (MAX_RAND + 1.0) is in [0, r).
So i'm implementing a heuristic algorithm, and i've come across this function.
I have an array of 1 to n (0 to n-1 on C, w/e). I want to choose a number of elements i'll copy to another array. Given a parameter y, (0 < y <= 1), i want to have a distribution of numbers whose average is (y * n). That means that whenever i call this function, it gives me a number, between 0 and n, and the average of these numbers is y*n.
According to the author, "l" is a random number: 0 < l < n . On my test code its currently generating 0 <= l <= n. And i had the right code, but i'm messing with this for hours now, and i'm lazy to code it back.
So i coded the first part of the function, for y <= 0.5
I set y to 0.2, and n to 100. That means it had to return a number between 0 and 99, with average 20.
And the results aren't between 0 and n, but some floats. And the bigger n is, smaller this float is.
This is the C test code. "x" is the "l" parameter.
//hate how code tag works, it's not even working now
int n = 100;
float y = 0.2;
float n_copy;
for(int i = 0 ; i < 20 ; i++)
{
float x = (float) (rand()/(float)RAND_MAX); // 0 <= x <= 1
x = x * n; // 0 <= x <= n
float p1 = (1 - y) / (n*y);
float p2 = (1 - ( x / n ));
float exp = (1 - (2*y)) / y;
p2 = pow(p2, exp);
n_copy = p1 * p2;
printf("%.5f\n", n_copy);
}
And here are some results (5 decimals truncated):
0.03354
0.00484
0.00003
0.00029
0.00020
0.00028
0.00263
0.01619
0.00032
0.00000
0.03598
0.03975
0.00704
0.00176
0.00001
0.01333
0.03396
0.02795
0.00005
0.00860
The article is:
http://www.scribd.com/doc/3097936/cAS-The-Cunning-Ant-System
pages 6 and 7.
or search "cAS: cunning ant system" on google.
So what am i doing wrong? i don't believe the author is wrong, because there are more than 5 papers describing this same function.
all my internets to whoever helps me. This is important to my work.
Thanks :)
You may misunderstand what is expected of you.
Given a (properly normalized) PDF, and wanting to throw a random distribution consistent with it, you form the Cumulative Probability Distribution (CDF) by integrating the PDF, then invert the CDF, and use a uniform random predicate as the argument of the inverted function.
A little more detail.
f_s(l) is the PDF, and has been normalized on [0,n).
Now you integrate it to form the CDF
g_s(l') = \int_0^{l'} dl f_s(l)
Note that this is a definite integral to an unspecified endpoint which I have called l'. The CDF is accordingly a function of l'. Assuming we have the normalization right, g_s(N) = 1.0. If this is not so we apply a simple coefficient to fix it.
Next invert the CDF and call the result G^{-1}(x). For this you'll probably want to choose a particular value of gamma.
Then throw uniform random number on [0,n), and use those as the argument, x, to G^{-1}. The result should lie between [0,1), and should be distributed according to f_s.
Like Justin said, you can use a computer algebra system for the math.
dmckee is actually correct, but I thought that I would elaborate more and try to explain away some of the confusion here. I could definitely fail. f_s(l), the function you have in your pretty formula above, is the probability distribution function. It tells you, for a given input l between 0 and n, the probability that l is the segment length. The sum (integral) for all values between 0 and n should be equal to 1.
The graph at the top of page 7 confuses this point. It plots l vs. f_s(l), but you have to watch out for the stray factors it puts on the side. You notice that the values on the bottom go from 0 to 1, but there is a factor of x n on the side, which means that the l values actually go from 0 to n. Also, on the y-axis there is a x 1/n which means these values don't actually go up to about 3, they go to 3/n.
So what do you do now? Well, you need to solve for the cumulative distribution function by integrating the probability distribution function over l which actually turns out to be not too bad (I did it with the Wolfram Mathematica Online Integrator by using x for l and using only the equation for y <= .5). That however was using an indefinite integral and you are really integration along x from 0 to l. If we set the resulting equation equal to some variable (z for instance), the goal now is to solve for l as a function of z. z here is a random number between 0 and 1. You can try using a symbolic solver for this part if you would like (I would). Then you have not only achieved your goal of being able to pick random ls from this distribution, you have also achieved nirvana.
A little more work done
I'll help a little bit more. I tried doing what I said about for y <= .5, but the symbolic algebra system I was using wasn't able to do the inversion (some other system might be able to). However, then I decided to try using the equation for .5 < y <= 1. This turns out to be much easier. If I change l to x in f_s(l) I get
y / n / (1 - y) * (x / n)^((2 * y - 1) / (1 - y))
Integrating this over x from 0 to l I got (using Mathematica's Online Integrator):
(l / n)^(y / (1 - y))
It doesn't get much nicer than that with this sort of thing. If I set this equal to z and solve for l I get:
l = n * z^(1 / y - 1) for .5 < y <= 1
One quick check is for y = 1. In this case, we get l = n no matter what z is. So far so good. Now, you just generate z (a random number between 0 and 1) and you get an l that is distributed as you desired for .5 < y <= 1. But wait, looking at the graph on page 7 you notice that the probability distribution function is symmetric. That means that we can use the above result to find the value for 0 < y <= .5. We just change l -> n-l and y -> 1-y and get
n - l = n * z^(1 / (1 - y) - 1)
l = n * (1 - z^(1 / (1 - y) - 1)) for 0 < y <= .5
Anyway, that should solve your problem unless I made some error somewhere. Good luck.
Given that for any values l, y, n as described, the terms you call p1 and p2 are both in [0,1) and exp is in [1,..) making pow(p2, exp) also in [0,1) thus I don't see how you'd ever get an output with the range [0,n)
I'm kind of stuck here, I guess it's a bit of a brain teaser. If I have numbers in the range between 0.5 to 1 how can I normalize it to be between 0 to 1?
Thanks for any help, maybe I'm just a bit slow since I've been working for the past 24 hours straight O_O
Others have provided you the formula, but not the work. Here's how you approach a problem like this. You might find this far more valuable than just knowning the answer.
To map [0.5, 1] to [0, 1] we will seek a linear map of the form x -> ax + b. We will require that endpoints are mapped to endpoints and that order is preserved.
Method one: The requirement that endpoints are mapped to endpoints and that order is preserved implies that 0.5 is mapped to 0 and 1 is mapped to 1
a * (0.5) + b = 0 (1)
a * 1 + b = 1 (2)
This is a simultaneous system of linear equations and can be solved by multiplying equation (1) by -2 and adding equation (1) to equation (2). Upon doing this we obtain b = -1 and substituting this back into equation (2) we obtain that a = 2. Thus the map x -> 2x - 1 will do the trick.
Method two: The slope of a line passing through two points (x1, y1) and (x2, y2) is
(y2 - y1) / (x2 - x1).
Here we will use the points (0.5, 0) and (1, 1) to meet the requirement that endpoints are mapped to endpoints and that the map is order-preserving. Therefore the slope is
m = (1 - 0) / (1 - 0.5) = 1 / 0.5 = 2.
We have that (1, 1) is a point on the line and therefore by the point-slope form of an equation of a line we have that
y - 1 = 2 * (x - 1) = 2x - 2
so that
y = 2x - 1.
Once again we see that x -> 2x - 1 is a map that will do the trick.
Subtract 0.5 (giving you a new range of 0 - 0.5) then multiply by 2.
double normalize( double x )
{
// I'll leave range validation up to you
return (x - 0.5) * 2;
}
To add another generic answer.
If you want to map the linear range [A..B] to [C..D], you can apply the following steps:
Shift the range so the lower bound is 0. (subract A from both bounds:
[A..B] -> [0..B-A]
Scale the range so it is [0..1]. (divide by the upper bound):
[0..B-A] -> [0..1]
Scale the range so it has the length of the new range which is D-C. (multiply with D-C):
[0..1] -> [0..D-C]
Shift the range so the lower bound is C. (add C to the bounds):
[0..D-C] -> [C..D]
Combining this to a single formula, we get:
(D-C)*(X-A)
X' = ----------- + C
(B-A)
In your case, A=0.5, B=1, C=0, D=1 you get:
(X-0.5)
X' = ------- = 2X-1
(0.5)
Note, if you have to convert a lot of X to X', you can change the formula to:
(D-C) C*B - A*D
X' = ----- * X + ---------
(B-A) (B-A)
It is also interesting to take a look at non linear ranges. You can take the same steps, but you need an extra step to transform the linear range to a nonlinear range.
Lazyweb answer: To convert a value x from [minimum..maximum] to [floor..ceil]:
General case:
normalized_x = ((ceil - floor) * (x - minimum))/(maximum - minimum) + floor
To normalize to [0..255]:
normalized_x = (255 * (x - minimum))/(maximum - minimum)
To normalize to [0..1]:
normalized_x = (x - minimum)/(maximum - minimum)
× 2 − 1
should do the trick
You could always use clamp or saturate within your math to make sure your final value is between 0-1. Some saturate at the end, but I've seen it done during a computation, too.